Browse all practice questions for the NMNC 4510 Concept Synthesis Practice Test. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

NMNC 4510 Concept Synthesis Practice Test course image
All questions

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

  • Which statement regarding interventions for clients with inhalation burns shows a nurse needs further education?
  • Which complication is most serious for a client with kidney failure?
  • A client develops ARDS. The nurse assesses signs of pulmonary edema and atelectasis. The findings correspond to which phase of ARDS?
  • Which symptom is most characteristic of late hypovolemic shock?
  • Which statement explains why metabolic acidosis develops with kidney failure?
  • A client is diagnosed with acute kidney failure secondary to dehydration. An intravenous (IV) infusion of 50% glucose with regular insulin is prescribed to address which purpose?
  • A client newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?
  • Which activity should be avoided after implantation of a permanent cardiac pacemaker?
  • Which symptom is most likely to improve with carbidopa-levodopa therapy in Parkinson disease?
  • Which medication decreases preload in heart failure?
  • Which nursing intervention would prevent septic shock in the hospitalized client?
  • When explaining crackles to a patient with respiratory distress, which statement is appropriate?
  • Which ABG finding is most consistent with metabolic alkalosis?
  • A client who is experiencing diplopia, ptosis, and mild dysphagia is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which instruction would the nurse include when planning care with the client and spouse?
  • An ABG report indicates pH 7.25, PCO2 35 mm Hg, and HCO3 20 mEq/L. Which disturbance would you identify?
  • Which assessment findings would alert a nurse to suspected kidney insufficiency in a client with chronic kidney disease?
  • Which sign indicates decreased renal perfusion in shock?
  • Which symptom may indicate impending hypovolemic shock in a post-operative patient after major abdominal surgery?
  • Discharge teaching after mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve should include which topic?
  • Which statement about carbidopa-levodopa is true?
  • Which complication is commonly monitored in end-stage kidney disease because the kidneys produce less erythropoietin?
  • Which statement best describes normal acid-base status on ABG analysis?
  • In septic shock, which skin finding is typical in the early phase?
  • Which statement about the exudative phase of ARDS is true?
  • Which client has second-degree burns?
  • A client with extensive burns who is unconscious and has hypovolemic shock. Which site would be used to obtain the pulse rate?
  • During burn resuscitation, plasma proteins moving out of the intravascular space primarily contributes to which outcome?
  • Which clinical manifestation would you expect immediately after sustaining a functional transection of the spinal cord at C7-C8?
  • In response to a protein-restricted diet for acute kidney injury, which statement best reflects the dietary rationale?
  • Which statement about the prognosis of multiple sclerosis is accurate?
  • Nocturnal dyspnea in heart failure is most commonly associated with which condition?
  • In respiratory alkalosis, which statement about ventilation is correct?
  • Which ABG interpretation indicates respiratory alkalosis?
  • Dependent edema in heart failure is most closely associated with which ventricular failure?
  • Which position is used for abdominal assessment?
  • Which option represents the ABG finding most consistent with compensated respiratory acidosis, given pH 7.34 and a high PCO2?
  • What healing time is typical for a burn with hard inelastic eschar?
  • A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted to the hospital with severe infection and anemia. The client reports feeling depressed and irritable. The client's spouse asks the nurse about the anticipated plan of care. Which response would the nurse provide?
  • Which nursing action best promotes nutritional status during the acute phase after extensive burns?
  • Which action would be the nurse's first priority when receiving a client with major burns?
  • Which finding is typical for aortic stenosis?
  • In hyperkalemia, what is the mechanism of action of intravenous regular insulin with glucose?
  • During the acute phase, which activity is emphasized for wound evaluation?
  • Which medication prescribed for acute heart failure would the nurse question?
  • Which description best indicates a superficial partial-thickness burn?
  • Which process is a function of the kidney hormones? (Renin-angiotensin system)
  • Which statement best explains when extubation is appropriate for a burn patient?
  • A client with acute kidney injury reports twitching and tingling of fingers and toes. Which process would the nurse consider in her explanation?
  • A client with Parkinson disease is admitted to the hospital. Which medication is prescribed to improve the physical manifestations of Parkinson disease?
  • Which finding is most characteristic of cardiogenic shock?
  • Which client color change indicates risk for heart disease?
  • Which assessment finding would a nurse expect in a client with ARDS?
  • Which patient scenario most strongly suggests hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage?
  • Which finding is most important to communicate to the provider for a patient with aortic stenosis awaiting valve replacement?
  • A client is extubated in the postanesthesia care unit after surgery. For which common response would the nurse be alert when monitoring the client for acute respiratory distress?
  • Which organ-specific autoimmune disorder would the nurse associate with a client's kidney?
  • Pyridostigmine bromide is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. The nurse evaluates that the medication regimen is understood when the client makes which statement?
  • Postoperative urinalysis after kidney surgery shows which finding that requires notification of the primary health care provider?
  • Which equipment would the nurse recommend to foster independence at home for an ambulatory client who has Parkinson disease?
  • Anemia in chronic kidney disease is primarily due to decreased production of which hormone?
  • A client is scheduled to have a Tensilon test. Which response to the test would confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
  • Which statement best explains why dental caries are a concern before valve surgery?
  • The rule of nines is used to estimate which aspect of a burn injury?
  • Which assessment finding presents the highest risk for cardiac shock?
  • A recently hospitalized client with multiple sclerosis voices concern about generalized weakness and fluctuating physical status. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
  • Which condition increases the risk for endocarditis and should be treated before surgery?
  • Which of the following is NOT typically monitored as a manifestation of heart failure?
  • Which assessment finding presents the highest risk for hypovolemia in burn patients?
  • Which type of shock would you monitor for in a patient with a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?
  • Which childhood illness is linked to potential damage to heart valves, especially the mitral valve?
  • Which response best aligns with the nurse's approach when a patient with aortic stenosis says they gave financial records to their spouse in case they don't make it?
  • A patient with abdominal trauma presents with a drop in blood pressure and a rising heart rate; which type of shock is most likely?
  • Which adjunct therapy is included in early burn resuscitation to promote healing?
  • Which term would the nurse use to document observing the characteristic gait associated with Parkinson disease?
  • A client with 50% body surface area burns is 48 hours postadmission. Urine output is 50 mL/h, urine specific gravity 1.015, hematocrit 0.42, albumin 3.6 g/dL, and PAWP 10 mm Hg. Which conclusion is most appropriate?
  • The nurse reviews the kidney function blood studies of four clients. Which client's results indicate kidney impairment?
  • During the acute phase, which wound care action is emphasized for severe burns?
  • A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for myasthenia gravis. Which test would the nurse identify as the most specific for this diagnosis?
  • During the first 24 hours after a skin graft over a full-thickness burn, which donor-site observation requires reporting to the physician?
  • A client admitted with a burn injury has erythema and mild swelling. Which type of burn would the nurse suspect?
  • Which nursing intervention is specific to clients in active labor who present with a history of cardiac disease?
  • Goodpasture syndrome involves autoantibodies against basement membranes—affecting the kidneys and which other organ?
  • A nurse is caring for a patient on a PCA hydromorphone pump who becomes unresponsive with shallow respirations. What action is the priority?
  • Arrange the order of airway management in a client with burns.
  • In a patient with a severe latex allergy experiencing anaphylaxis, which finding indicates airway compromise requiring immediate intervention?
  • Which medical intervention would the nurse anticipate will be included in the management of a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
  • Which finding would support a client's diagnosis of Parkinson disease?
  • The nurse reviews the assessment findings of four clients with burns. Which client's findings are consistent with chemical burns?
  • Which hormone influences kidney function?
  • Which class of medication is used in heart failure to decrease afterload and fluid overload?
  • Which finding would be typical in ARDS during acute distress?
  • A client asks what causes myasthenia gravis. Which description of pathology would the nurse use in response to the client?
  • In a child returned to the pediatric intensive care unit after cardiac surgery with a left chest tube attached to water-seal drainage, an intravenous line running D5 ½ NS at 4 mL/h, and a double-lumen nasogastric tube connected to continuous suction, which is the priority nursing intervention?
  • The arterial blood gases for a client with acute respiratory distress are pH 7.30, PaO2 80 mm Hg (10.64 kPa), PaCO2 55 mm Hg (7.32 kPa), and HCO3 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). How would the nurse interpret these findings?
  • The nurse teaches a client with chronic kidney disease to avoid all salt substitutes in his or her diet. Which rationale supports the nurse's instruction?
  • In healthy kidneys, which statement best describes the glomerulus's handling of large proteins?
  • A patient on pyridostigmine therapy says they will take the medication on a schedule. Which justification best supports this approach?
  • Which respiratory finding is most likely immediately after a spinal cord injury at C7–C8?
  • What happens to the BUN when the kidneys cannot remove urea from the blood normally?
  • A client is experiencing severe acute respiratory distress. Which response would the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
  • What patient position is appropriate to assess heart murmurs?
  • For a norepinephrine infusion in septic shock, which intravenous access is preferred?
  • Which clinical indicator of shock should the nurse immediately report in a client who sustained severe burns?
  • Which finding would alert the nurse to potential respiratory obstruction in burns of the upper body?
  • A client with partial-thickness burns on the chest, abdomen, and right side arrives in the emergency department. What action should the nurse take first?
  • Which diversion activity would the nurse encourage to meet the client's needs during the remission phase of his or her multiple sclerosis (MS)?
  • Which assessment finding would the nurse expect in a client with a 10-year history of emphysema admitted for acute respiratory distress?
  • Which urine output value at 48 hours post-burn would indicate adequate fluid resuscitation?
  • An ABG report shows PO2 89 mm Hg, PCO2 35 mm Hg, and pH 7.37. These findings indicate which condition?
  • Which lab change indicates the client is in septic shock?
  • Which finding is expected in a patient in hypovolemic shock?
  • A PCO2 of 60 mm Hg most directly indicates which primary disturbance?
  • Which statement about tachycardia in ARDS is accurate?
  • A client develops acute respiratory distress, and a tracheostomy is performed. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?
  • Which initial change in acid-base balance will the nurse expect in the progressive stage of shock?
  • Which action should be taken first regarding inhalation burns?
  • A client with extensive burns is receiving intravenous fluids to replace fluid loss. The nurse would monitor for which initial symptom of fluid overload?
  • Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of neostigmine in myasthenia gravis?
  • A client with COPD and acute pneumonia is in moderate respiratory distress. Which position enhances comfort?
  • Which type of burn injury should be followed up by scheduling an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
  • Cardiac catheterization in a child with a ventricular septal defect serves which purpose?
  • During a Tensilon test, a positive result is best described as which of the following?
  • Which clinical manifestation indicates the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease?
  • Supplemental oxygen is ordered for a preterm neonate with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which action would the nurse take to reduce the possibility of retinopathy of prematurity?
  • When assisting a client with Parkinson disease to ambulate, which instruction would the nurse provide the client?
  • The nurse is teaching a student nurse about ongoing monitoring of a client with electrical burns. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
  • Which test is most specific for diagnosing myasthenia gravis?
  • Which statement about the renin-angiotensin system is correct?
  • In profound (late) hypovolemic shock, ABG results would show which change?
  • A partner of a client with multiple sclerosis expresses guilt and distress. Which nurse response would be most helpful?
  • Which client is most likely to exhibit the ABG pattern pH 7.25, PCO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L?
  • Which brain structure is primarily affected in Parkinson disease, leading to motor symptoms?
  • Which combination indicates metabolic acidosis on ABG?
  • Which medication toxicity presents with vomiting, bradycardia, anorexia, and dysrhythmias in a child?
  • Corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with multiple sclerosis. In response to the therapy, which symptom would the nurse expect to decrease?
  • Which finding best characterizes neurogenic shock after a spinal cord injury?
  • In the emergent phase for a client with full-thickness burns of the trunk and head, which nursing goal is the priority during the first hours?
  • A client admitted with oliguria receives a prescription for 900 mL of oral fluids over 24 hours. Which interpretation is most accurate?
  • Which instruction can be delegated to the registered nurse to provide effective care to a client with a respiratory disorder?
  • In peritoneal dialysis, waste removal occurs primarily through which mechanisms across the peritoneal membrane?
  • A client with Parkinson disease is prescribed levodopa. Which mechanism best explains how this medication works?
  • Which action would support airway management in an ARDS patient with a tracheostomy?
  • A client with severe burns is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which physiological finding supports this assessment?
  • What is the normal range of serum creatinine in adults?
  • Which clinical finding would the nurse anticipate for a client who has an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis?
  • Which finding is commonly observed in acute spinal shock?
  • In the resuscitation phase of a burn patient who develops hoarseness and exhaled breath sounds, what is the most immediate action?
  • A client has burn injuries from an electrical current. Which interventions would be used as first aid until the client is transferred to a health care facility?
  • During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury, which clinical indicator would a nurse most likely assess?
  • What is the priority nursing action when hypotension and bradycardia occur during nasotracheal suctioning?
  • To promote effective airway clearance in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which measure is recommended?
  • Where is the mitral valve best auscultated?
  • A client admitted for partial- and full-thickness burns of the entire right lower leg and the anterior portion of the right upper arm. What percentage of body surface area is affected?
  • Which of the following is a common hemodynamic finding in cardiogenic shock?
  • A client with chronic kidney failure is to undergo continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which statement best describes the therapy?
  • Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely to cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias in kidney failure?
  • Which finding is observed in cardiogenic shock?
  • Which client most likely suffers sunburn?
  • Which option best describes the typical facial presentation in Parkinson disease?
  • Which electrolyte disturbance occurs as a result of phosphorus retention during kidney injury?
  • Which would be the major characteristic of a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting?
  • A nurse counseling a patient with multiple sclerosis about managing fluctuating symptoms chooses to emphasize which approach as most appropriate?
  • Cardiac catheterization in a patient with a ventricular septal defect can measure pulmonary pressures in addition to locating the defect. Which is the correct measurement?
  • The most important complication of anaphylactic shock in the adolescent client is most important for the nurse to detect early?
  • Which type of shock is classically associated with spinal cord injury and massive vasodilation?
  • A client with myasthenia gravis has been receiving neostigmine and asks about its action. Which information would the nurse consider when formulating a response?
  • Which catecholamine receptor is responsible for increased heart rate?
  • Which lung sounds are typically heard with left-sided heart failure?
  • Which description matches a first-degree burn?
  • A client develops a transfusion reaction. Which clinical response will the nurse assess to determine kidney damage?
  • Which wound care is given to a client with severe burn injuries during the acute phase?
  • Which symptom is not typical of a multiple sclerosis exacerbation?
  • Which question is most relevant to assess risk for mitral valve stenosis?
  • During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, for which abnormal finding would the nurse monitor in the client?
  • A client asks the nurse what causes Parkinson disease. Which description of pathology would the nurse provide in response to the client?
  • What action would the nurse take first for an older client with multiple recent admissions for heart failure?
  • After discovering a large amount of blood under the buttocks following a femoral artery catheterization, which action would the nurse take first?
  • Which physiologic change contributes to intravascular volume loss during burn-induced hypovolemic shock?
  • Which ventilator adjustment is used to prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration in ARDS?
  • Which findings would the nurse expect when completing an admission physical for a client with a diagnosis of Parkinson disease?
Subscribe

Get the latest from Examzify

You can unsubscribe at any time. Read our privacy policy